Q: “I have a New York City client who grants 10 days of paid vacation after one year of employment and each year thereafter. Let’s say upon an employee’s termination or resignation, he does not want to pay for unused, accrued vacation. Is this legal considering the vacation is based or accrued on the previous year’s work and granted on the first of the following year? Or is it legal and just bad policy?” - Kenneth, New York
Is using this loophole to avoid paying for unused vacation time a bad idea?
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